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Has anyone ever asked the question why God has allowed all of this, from Genesis to Revelation, the “fall of man”, “sacrifice of Christ”, etc. to take place? For whose benefit was all this – man’s or God’s? Why not let Adam exist without the fall, etc?

D____

Hi D____,

Thank you for your question. The answer is, yes, I have had that very question. The scriptures indicate that we all have that question. It is not posed exactly as you pose it, but it is the same question:

Rom 9:19 Thou wilt say then unto me, Why doth he yet find fault? For who hath resisted his will?

The question “who hath resisted His will?” is a reference back to a statement of Truth made by King Jehoshaphat in 2 Chronicles:

2Ch 20:6 And [ Jehoshaphat] said, O LORD God of our fathers, art not thou God in heaven? and rulest not thou over all the kingdoms of the heathen? and in thine hand is there not power and might, so that none is able to withstand thee?

The question Paul is posing is the question we all have when we first come to understand that if there is a sovereign God, then surely He must be indeed ‘sovereign.’ Now if God is indeed sovereign then no one can or is “resisting His will [ Greek – boulema – Strong’s # G1013- intention or resolve]

If you go on to read what is on my site you will learn that there is no such thing as a fabled ‘fall of man.’ The fact of scripture is that “the vessel of clay [ Adam as he was originally made] was marred in the Potter’s hand.”

Jer 18:4 And the vessel that he made of clay was marred in the hand of the potter: so he made it again another vessel, as seemed good to the potter to make it.

It is by divine design that we find ourselves in this weak corruptible, dying , condition. Adam’s sin was not the result of his disobedience. His disobedience was the result of the fact that he “was shapen [“in the hand of the Potter”] in iniquity, and in sin…”

Psa 51:5 Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me.

The statement that Christ was “made to be sin…” is not a reference to his being crucified and dying on the cross. It is a reference to the fact that Christ had divested Himself of His incorruptible spiritual body, and like all “in Adam,” had by virtue of His fleshly birth, taken on a “marred” and dying “body of death.” Christ now could say with David:

Psa 51:5 Behold, I was shapen in iniquity; and in sin did my mother conceive me.

Neither Mary nor David’s mother were immoral. Quite the contrary. Nevertheless the Truth still remains:

Jer 18:4 And the vessel that he made of clay was marred in the hand of the potter.

This all being so, it is incumbent upon the Potter to “make it again another vessel, as seemed good to the Potter.” And sure enough we read:

1Co 15:22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.

So the answer to your question, in the final analysis is, that it is God who has decided how He is working out His plan. It was God who declared that “flesh [ is] corruptible”:

1Co 15:50 Now this I say, brethren, that flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God [ and why is that?]; neither doth corruption inherit incorruption.

According to God’s own Word, flesh is “corruption.” So Adam was created in “flesh and blood… corruption.” As such, he was in no condition to inherit the kingdom of God. He did not ‘fall.’ He was created “dust.” He had nowhere to ‘fall.’ All he was capable of doing was “missing the mark.” He was after all “corruptible flesh and blood. As such he was predestined to eat of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, he was predestined “before the world began” to be brought to see his “naked… dusty… earthy… mortal… corruptible… flesh and blood… shapen in iniquity and conceived in sin… body of this death” condition. He was predestined to come to see that he was a “vessel of clay… marred in the hand of the Potter. He was predestined to be brought to see his dire need of a savior. It is all God’s call. Be sure to read After The Counsel of His Own Will.

To those of faith, this knowledge of the depth of God’s sovereignty is very comforting. It may not be as easy as you and I would want it, but at least the lie of eternal hell fire is debunked by the Truth:

1Ti 4:10 For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially [ not ‘exclusively] of those that believe.

And again:

1Jn 2:2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

Faith is a gift from God which neither no man can give you. But when you have the faith of Christ, you are happy to learn this verse which is the fullness of God’s answer to your question:

Php 2:13 For it is God which worketh in you both to will [ Even your ‘will,’ is the “working,” of God in you] and to do [ even what you ‘do is…’] of his good pleasure.

That is completely in accord with all scripture. Both your will and what you do are “of his good pleasure.”

Rom 11:36 For of him, and through him, and to him, are all things: to whom be glory for ever. Amen.
Col 1:16 For by him were all things created, that are in heaven, and that are in earth, visible and invisible, whether they be thrones, or dominions, or principalities, or powers: all things were created by him, and for him:

I pray that God has given you the faith of Christ to appreciate the fact that His ways are vastly superior to ours:

Heb 2:17 Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren [ “made Him to be sin… shapen in iniquity… marred in the Potter’s hand… flesh and blood”], that he might be a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make reconciliation for the sins of the people.

That is why Adam could not live forever in the flesh. It has never yet been written on anyone’s death certificate; ‘This person died of old age.’ Yet it is an undeniable fact that no one yet has ever left this earth in the flesh. No, despite the entirety of orthodox Christianity affirming otherwise, Christ only “appeared to them” in a body full of holes. Christ has a “spiritual body. He is not “flesh and blood.” Neither is He “flesh and bone” simply because appearing as such was necessary for the sake of all of his ‘doubting Thomas’ disciples. Christ is not now “of the flesh:”

Joh 3:6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh; and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.

Flesh is flesh and spirit is spirit. They are not both at the same time. Christ is now spirit. If you truly want to know what Christ looks like now, then read Revelation one.

Rev 1:13 And in the midst of the seven candlesticks like unto the Son of man, clothed with a garment down to the foot, and girt about the paps with a golden girdle.
Rev 1:14 His head and his hairs were white like wool, as white as snow; and his eyes were as a flame of fire;
Rev 1:15 And his feet like unto fine brass, as if they burned in a furnace; and his voice as the sound of many waters.
Rev 1:16 And he had in his right hand seven stars: and out of his mouth went a sharp twoedged sword: and his countenance was as the sun shineth in his strength.

What happened to that so called ‘body of eternal hole- filled flesh?’ There is no mention of it at this time, because it was “changed in a moment, in the twinkling of an eye…” That body of flesh and bone, no longer exists. It could never inherit the kingdom of God.

I hope this helps your understanding.

Mike