Last Updated: October 21, 2005

Posted October 21, 2005

Ed wrote:

Hello there Mike,

I did not realize that you wrote some of the material on the bible- truths website, as does L. Ray Smith.

I would like to know if you have any revelation knowledge pertaining to; where the gentiles came from, when the law was given to mankind (not the mosaic law), and the relationship between the two?

I thank you for any and all information on the subject matter that you may be able to send my way.

Sincerely, Ed

Hi Ed,

Thank you for your question

At the very beginning of my paper on The Law Of Moses Versus The Law Of The Spirit, I point out that “God’s law is the revelation of the very character of God Himself.” While God himself has always existed, and while Christ is the physical manifestation of God the Father, neither the Father nor His law had ever been revealed until Christ came to this earth in the flesh to “reveal Him.”

Mat 11:27 All things are delivered unto me of my Father: and no man knoweth the Son, but the Father; neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son, and he to whomsoever the Son will reveal him.

So, to answer your question directly; There was no codified law given by God to the Gentiles before God gave Moses what Christ was always careful to refer to as “the law of Moses.” The “new covenant” reveals to us who the Father really is. It does not reveal to us the trinity as taught by all of orthodox Christianity. So who did Christ come to reveal to us?

Contrary to this false doctrine of the trinity, the “holy spirit” is not “part of the Godhead,” but it is “the spirit of the Father.” That is to say that the ‘holy ghost,’ is the spirit of God the Father, “of whom are all things.”

1Co 8:6 But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and [ besides that “one God, of whom are all things,” there is also] one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.1Co 8:7 Howbeit there is not in every man that knowledge…

Christ Himself makes this abundantly clear. When speaking specifically of the holy spirit and how it would inspire us at the needed time Christ had this to say:

Mat 10:20 For it is not ye that speak, but the Spirit of your Father which speaketh in you.

Now had that spirit been revealed before, had there been any other way to give to us a revelation of the Father, then eternal life could have been given with out Christ ever needing to come in a dying “body of this death.” But such was not the case, and so Christ had to come to “reveal the Father.”

So the Father and His law were already in existence in the day that Adam was created. But God and His law were not yet revealed. Most Christians to this day believe that because it is written in Genesis:

Gen 2:1 Thus the heavens and the earth were finished, and all the host of them.Gen 2:2 And on the seventh day God ended his work which he had made; and he rested on the seventh day from all his work which he had made.Gen 2:3 And God blessed the seventh day, and sanctified it: because that in it he had rested from all his work which God created and made.

And again in Exo 20:

Exo 20:11 For in six days the LORD made heaven and earth, the sea, and all that in them is, and rested the seventh day: wherefore the LORD blessed the sabbath day, and hallowed it.

Because of these two verses, many believe that the law of the sabbath was established at creation, and that even though there is no mention of Adam, or Abel, or Seth, Or Enoch, or Noah, Or Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, ever keeping the weekly sabbath, that nevertheless they did. Some even go so far as to say that since the law is eternal that all of the holy days given to Moses were also being kept from the creation.

Passover, of course, was originally instituted as a memorial of Israel’s deliverance from Egyptian slavery:

Exo 12:42 It is a night to be much observed unto the LORD for bringing them out from the land of Egypt: this [ is] that night of the LORD to be observed of all the children of Israel in their generations.Exo 13:6 Seven days thou shalt eat unleavened bread, and in the seventh day [ shall be] a feast to the LORD.Exo 13:7 Unleavened bread shall be eaten seven days; and there shall no leavened bread be seen with thee, neither shall there be leaven seen with thee in all thy quarters.Exo 13:8 And thou shalt shew thy son in that day, saying, [ This is done] because of that [ which] the LORD did unto me when I came forth out of Egypt.Exo 13:9 And it shall be for a sign unto thee upon thine hand, and for a memorial between thine eyes, that the LORD’S law may be in thy mouth: for with a strong hand hath the LORD brought thee out of Egypt.

The only ‘law ,’ revealed before Moses, was “thou shalt not eat of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil.” So we are clearly told of “the law” of Moses that:

Gal 3:17… The covenant, that was confirmed before of God in Christ, the law, which was four hundred and thirty years after, cannot disannul, that it should make the promise of none effect

This verse of scripture blows the teaching that the law of Moses existed from creation, out of the water. It did not. Just because the sabbath is mentioned as being made holy because of the fact that God finished His work in six days does not mean that it was observed from the creation. The sabbath law was given at Sinai. Not one person is mentioned as keeping the weekly sabbath, until Sinai. The law of Christ is not the law of Moses and the law of Moses is not the eternal law of the Spirit.

I hope this has answered your question Ed. There was no codified law involved in the Garden of Eden, nor was there a codified las involved in the covenant that God made with Noah after the flood. Not even Abraham was given a law to keep. If there had been a law involved then Paul’s who point on faith versus the law of Moses, in Galatians three, quoted above and innumerate in all of his epistles, would have been without merit. The law was never given until “four hundred and thirty years” after Abraham was given the promises while still uncircumcised.

I hope this has answered your question Ed. There were plenty of laws, like the law of Hammurabi, which preceded the law of Moses. But God had never given man any codified laws to keep until Moses and Sinai.

Your second question was about the origins of the Gentile nations.

The answer to that question is that until Jacob, the son of Isaac, the son of Abraham, there was no such distinction as “Jews and Gentiles.” Isaac’s son Jacob had twelve sons. One of those sons was named Judah. Judah was the most prominent tribe in Israel so far as rulership was concerned. Jacob, whose name God changed to Israel, had prophesied on his death bead that the ruler of Israel would be born of Judah. This prophecy had such a profound effect that eventually all Israelites became known as Jews. All the other descendants of Noah are Gentiles. Even the descendants of Abraham and Isaac, who are not descendants of Jacob, are considered Gentiles. So all the descendants of Ishmael and Esau, though both are descended form Abraham, they are still Gentiles. All of this is, of course, “according to the flesh.” In spiritual terms, the only true Israelite and the only true Jew are those who are “in Christ:”

Gal 3:16 Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ.Gal 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.Gal 3:29 And if ye be Christ’s, then are ye Abraham’s seed, and heirs according to the promise.

I hope this helps your understanding, Ed.

Mike