Hi Mike,

I have been re- reading the gospels and wondering if you can explain why Jesus went only to the Jews. Also wondering what he meant in Matthew when it says he came to save His people? Mat 1:21. Also, since Jesus hadn’t been crucified yet, I assume the gospels up until his crucifixion are shadows of good things to come, to fulfill the law. Am I right? Hope you have time to respond.

Thanks again.

L____

Hi L____,

Thank you for your questions.

Why did Christ go only to the Jews while He was here in the flesh? The answer to this question is found in Romans.

Rom 1:16 For I am not ashamed of the gospel of Christ: for it is the power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth; to the Jew first, and also to the Greek.
Rom 2:10 But glory, honour, and peace, to every man that worketh good, to the Jew first, and also to the Gentile:

What is meant by ‘He came to save His people? This means what it says. It is only through the name of Christ that anyone will ever be saved. Christ was not known before He came. And His reason for coming was to save all men:

1Jn 2:2 And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.

“The sins of the whole world” would certainly include the sins of “His people.”

You are right on target about the gospels having types and shadows in them. The fact that the apostles cast out demons and healed the sick while they were yet carnal, is a type and shadow of what is taking place in the orthodox Christian world to this day.

Luk 22:32 But I have prayed for thee [ Peter], that thy faith fail not: and when thou art converted, strengthen thy brethren.

Contrary to what is taught in the orthodox Christian world, simply believing in Christ is not the definition of being ‘converted’ or being ‘saved. Here is the scriptural Truth about being ‘saved:’

Mat 10:22 And ye shall be hated of all men for my name’s sake: but he that endureth to the end shall be saved.

I hope I have answered your questions.

Mike